Originally posted by daggum
View Post
Why would you think, that "Wilder lost therefore was not in his prime because a prime Wilder can't lose" would be a No True Scotsman Fallacy? Like seriously, I want to know how your underdeveloped brain has managed to make that connection?
You know, the keyword in that fallacy is the word "true". You're aware of that, right? It's kind of IN THE NAME.
So obviously the key example to this fallacy argument would be "No true scotman adds sweetener to his porridge", to which a reply to that would be "But I know a scotsman who does in fact put sweetener in his porridge" to which the fallacy argument in the response would be "Yes but no TRUE scotsman would do that". The fallacy there being how to we define what a "true" scotmans is?
I.e, a "real" man would not do that. Or, a "real woman" would not behave that way. However nobody can define what a "real" (and for this fallacy argument "true") version of what's being argued is.
Another example without using the literal definition would be "No true muslim drinks alcohol", well I do know many muslims who do drink alcohol, "Well they are not true muslims" and thereby lies, you guessed it; the fallacy argument in question.
Your example, isn't even close


Comment