You want to base this solely on facts. Ok. Let's look at the facts:
1. Ward was not admonished for any foul by the authorized official.
2. Kovalev was warned regarding a foul by the authorized official.
Conclusion: Kovalev initiated the foul.
You want it cut plain and dry, right? There it is. Any way you want to do this, you lose. I don't even know why you are still trying.
Ward was not admonished for any foul by the authorized official.
Non sequitur logical fallacy. That he wasn't 'admonished' doesn't mean he wasn't performing an illegal move.
Orlando Salido wasn't admonished for his low blows against Lomachenko either. Doesn't make what Orlando Salido did legal.
Kovalev was warned regarding a foul by the authorized official.
Yet, Andre Ward wasn't despite also commiting a foul / illegal move. What does this indicate to me? It indicates that the referee wasn't being fair to both to Kovalev.
Conclusion: Kovalev initiated the foul.
Conclusion: Andre Ward initiated the foul and Kovalev responded with a foul of his own.
You want it cut plain and dry, right?
What?
There it is. Any way you want to do this, you lose.
Non sequitur logical fallacy. That he wasn't 'admonished' doesn't mean he wasn't performing an illegal move.
Orlando Salido wasn't admonished for his headbutts against Lomachenko either. Doesn't make what Orlando Salido did legal.
Yet, Andre Ward wasn't despite also commiting a foul / illegal move. What does this indicate to me? It indicates that the referee wasn't being fair to both to Kovalev.
Conclusion: Andre Ward initiated the foul and Kovalev responded with a foul of his own.
What?
I could claim the same thing about you.
You don't need to know this.
Who decides if there is a foul that is worthy of warning, you or the official ref?
Your accusations of bias are based on absolutely nothing. Your opinion doesn't matter. Does it?
Is this a long ass thread about Ward head butting kovs body? That's foolish. Kov said before the fight he had been practicing grappling to prepare for the fight and we're surprised he used it? No, fact of the matter is I think his admonishment for holding excessively wasn't taken in the ring, but in the judges appraisal of his ring generalship and effectiveness.
Who decides if there is a foul that is worthy of warning, you or the official ref?
Your accusations of bias are based on absolutely nothing. Your opinion doesn't matter. Does it?
Who decides if there is a foul that is worthy of warning
Appeal to popularity is a logical fallacy!
'Who' is irrelevant. How the conclusion is formed is what's relevant.
Otherwise, every single decision by the referee should / would be correct.
In which case, the referee was correct in not warning and penalizing Orlando Salido for his low blows against Vasyl Lomachenko?
In which case, the officials were correct in robbing Roy Jones jr from his gold medal in the Seoul Olympics?
If you're argument is: Referee decides, therefore he is correct, then this has to apply CONSISTENTLY. Meaning, referee would ALWAYS be correct in his decision no matter what decision he makes according to your argument.
Fact of the matter is, that isn't the case. Referees can make mistakes and errors. As such, it's possible for a foul to be committed and the referee not dealing with the foul as he / she should.
If a boxer performs a low blow and the referee doesn't warn / penalize the boxer, does that mean low blows are allowed? No! It just means the referee didn't do his job correctly.
Your accusations of bias are based on absolutely nothing.
My accusations are purely objective and based on facts / evidence.
Your opinion doesn't matter. Does it?
My conclusion does, considering it's based on ACTUAL facts / evidence.
Question: Regarding the gif that you posted...
Did the referee warn Ward for a foul?
Did the referee warn Kovalev for a foul?
Let's have your answer.
The answer is: relying on the referee's decision to decide whether something was a foul / illegal move is a logical fallacy of appealing to authority.
'Who' is irrelevant. How the conclusion is formed is what's relevant.
Otherwise, every single decision by the referee should / would be correct.
In which case, the referee was correct in not warning and penalizing Orlando Salido for his low blows against Vasyl Lomachenko?
In which case, the officials were correct in robbing Roy Jones jr from his gold medal in the Seoul Olympics?
If you're argument is: Referee decides, therefore he is correct, then this has to apply CONSISTENTLY. Meaning, referee would ALWAYS be correct in his decision no matter what decision he makes according to your argument.
Fact of the matter is, that isn't the case. Referees can make mistakes and errors. As such, it's possible for a foul to be committed and the referee not dealing with the foul as he / she should.
If a boxer performs a low blow and the referee doesn't warn / penalize the boxer, does that mean low blows are allowed? No! It just means the referee didn't do his job correctly.
My accusations are purely objective and based on facts / evidence.
My conclusion does, considering it's based on ACTUAL facts / evidence.
The answer is: relying on the referee's decision to decide whether something was a foul / illegal move is a logical fallacy of appealing to authority.
So we should rely on you, who says there were "body head butts." LMAO.
Comment