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Why do Floyd fans says the IV infusion was not illegal?

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  • Originally posted by Isaac Clarke View Post
    You think Mayweather invented retroactive TUE's?
    well I am asking you, have you known any athlete availing retroactive TUE's?

    before Floyd?

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    • Originally posted by Isaac Clarke View Post
      He also said he's "the best ever".
      geez you mean floyd is a liar?

      then he lied when he told everybody that they called USADA to inform them about the IV infusion.

      Comment


      • Originally posted by Rath View Post
        What's the TUE for, to stay in compliance?

        compliance for what?
        Compliance with USADA, which was completely unnecessary.

        "Although Mr. Mayweather's application was not approved until after his fight with Mr. Pacquiao and all tests results were reported, Mr. Mayweather did disclose the infusion to USADA in advance of the IV being administered to him," USADA's statement read. "Furthermore, once the TUE [the****utic use exemption] was granted, the NSAC and Mr. Pacquiao were immediately notified even though the practice is not prohibited under NSAC rules."

        Again, the NSAC was the governing body, meaning that the only rules you have to stay in compliance with is that of the NSAC. Mayweather got the retroactive TUE to stay in compliance with USADA's rules, but he didn't have to. Because they were not the governing body, they would not have had the authority to issue a TUE of any type if there was a conflict with NSAC rules, but since the NSAC does not prohibit IVs there was no problem.

        TL;DR the IV was completely legal. Stop grasping at straws.

        Comment


        • Originally posted by Rath View Post
          well I am asking you, have you known any athlete availing retroactive TUE's?

          before Floyd?
          You're the one making claims. It's you that needs to back up these claims with evidence.

          Comment


          • How many f***ing Alts does Spoon have... This stuff is getting ridiculous. Feel ****** trying to read this nonsense.

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            • Originally posted by Rath View Post
              The TUE was granted 21 days later after the fight .

              Which means at the time of the fight, the IV infusion was illegal because the TUE was not even applied for.

              The granted TUE was for the IV infusion at the time of the fight not after it because the TUE no longer serves its purpose since the fight was done and over with.

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              • The question that should be asked is why Pacquiao was trying to take Toradol, when he and his team said his shoulder was perfectly fine before the fight? Why would he need pain medication when he wasn't in pain?

                Comment


                • Originally posted by doom_specialist View Post
                  Compliance with USADA, which was completely unnecessary.

                  "Although Mr. Mayweather's application was not approved until after his fight with Mr. Pacquiao and all tests results were reported, Mr. Mayweather did disclose the infusion to USADA in advance of the IV being administered to him," USADA's statement read. "Furthermore, once the TUE [the****utic use exemption] was granted, the NSAC and Mr. Pacquiao were immediately notified even though the practice is not prohibited under NSAC rules."

                  Again, the NSAC was the governing body, meaning that the only rules you have to stay in compliance with is that of the NSAC. Mayweather got the retroactive TUE to stay in compliance with USADA's rules, but he didn't have to. Because they were not the governing body, they would not have had the authority to issue a TUE of any type if there was a conflict with NSAC rules, but since the NSAC does not prohibit IVs there was no problem.

                  TL;DR the IV was completely legal. Stop grasping at straws.
                  Why would USADA put forth stuff you have to comply but no really we were just joking Floyd you don't have to comply.

                  it took Floyd 19 days to apply for the TUE!

                  why not a month or a year or don't have to.

                  why 19 days after the fight and it was just application.

                  the are not sure if it will be granted or not.

                  what if it was not granted?

                  would you still stand by your word that Floyd does not have to comply?

                  Comment


                  • Originally posted by Isaac Clarke View Post
                    The question that should be asked is why Pacquiao was trying to take Toradol, when he and his team said his shoulder was perfectly fine before the fight? Why would he need pain medication when he wasn't in pain?
                    the deflection.

                    you ahve to make another thread for that.

                    why aren't you?

                    Comment


                    • Originally posted by fanofslug View Post
                      nope, genius floyd fans are!

                      they are raving mad LOL

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