Originally posted by lfc19titles
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This is just another excuse from a hater who refuses to see the forest for the trees. You claim that Schaffer's idea is unfair because Mayweather was a star 2-3 years before Pac. Yet, in the same post, you claim that the only reason the Oscar fight sold was because of Oscar. So which is it? Was he a star two to three years before the Oscar fight and, thus half responsible for the huge PPV numbers? Or was he a noboby when he fought Oscar, causing Oscar to be responsible for the entire PPV number, which would negate your idea that Mayweather was a star three years before Pac?
Pac won't even get 45 percent of the revenue from the Bradley fight. He damn sure isn't getting 45 percent from a Mayweather fight.
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