One of the main reasons low blows are illegal is that they can end a fight quickly or render the opponent unable to fight effectively for a prolonged period of time. If Khan had been the one to hit Crawford with an undeniably illegal shot which rendered Crawford unable to continue is it inevitable that Khan would have been disqualified by the American ref?
We can go all the way back to Max Schmeling vs. Jack Sharkey in 1930 where Sharkey threw a low blow and put Schmeling out of action, resulting in Sharkey being Disqualified, and being the first man to lose the heavyweight title by DQ! Why wasn't Crawford DQ the same way and is it time for the decision to be overturned retroactively...?
We can go all the way back to Max Schmeling vs. Jack Sharkey in 1930 where Sharkey threw a low blow and put Schmeling out of action, resulting in Sharkey being Disqualified, and being the first man to lose the heavyweight title by DQ! Why wasn't Crawford DQ the same way and is it time for the decision to be overturned retroactively...?
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