10-8 or 10-9

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  • edgarg
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    #21
    Originally posted by Slyboots
    Uh, no. Judges can't do that, they have to score accordingly to what the ref upholds. If it was clearly a fluke KD but the ref ruled it as one, the judges HAVE to factor that in. A judge can't use their own discretion like that otherwise they wouldn't have their job for much longer if they did.
    This was what I read on Boxingscene that the Judges concerned said. I know that what you say is technically true, and have seen other evidence of it in past fights, but in this particular fight, what other explanation can you give for the scoring?

    I recall a Mayweather fight, in which he hurt his hand with a punch, and dropped it shaking it, accidentally touching the canvas in the process, and it was given as a KD against him.

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    • edgarg
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      #22
      Originally posted by AllEyesOpen
      Don't recall, might have been. I do recall the HBO commentators remarking about saying something along the lines of someone having to work to make it a 9-9 round after a kd in a previous broadcast, which was wrong based on the 10 point system, it would have to be a 10-10 round.
      No you don't quite understand, I believe. it IS a 10 point MUST system, in which the rd winner MUST be awarded 10 pts. BUT, there can be deductions from those 10 points, there are additional caveats governing a KD against the winning fighter, a foul deducted point etc in that same rd which he otherwise won, which would result in a 9-9 rd, even though, the system is a 10 point MUST system.

      The name might be slightly misleading for those to whom boxing is a pastime to those with little interest in, nor knowledge of the basic rules.

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      • AllEyesOpen
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        #23
        Originally posted by D4thincarnation
        Lampley and Merchant don't know their stuff, reguarding the rules, Lederman has had to correct them a few times.
        You are right, but my point remains the same. Don't feel bad if you've been watching boxing for years and didn't know or fully understand this rule, because if guys like Lampley and Merchant, who've been watching boxing longer then a lot of us have been alive, can make the mistake it doesn't make you any less of a boxing fan.

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        • D4thincarnation
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          #24
          Originally posted by edgarg
          No you don't quite understand, I believe. it IS a 10 point MUST system, in which the rd winner MUST be awarded 10 pts. BUT, there can be deductions from those 10 points, there are additional caveats governing a KD against the winning fighter, a foul deducted point etc in that same rd which he otherwise won, which would result in a 9-9 rd, even though, the system is a 10 point MUST system.

          The name might be slightly misleading for those to whom boxing is a pastime to those with little interest in, nor knowledge of the basic rules.
          No if the fighter that get KD edges the round it is a 10-9 round to the fighter that scored the KD

          If the fighter that got KD was dominating the round before the KD and then goes on to dominate the round after the KD the judges may score it in favour of the fighter that got KD 10-9.

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          • AllEyesOpen
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            #25
            Originally posted by edgarg
            No you don't quite understand, I believe. it IS a 10 point MUST system, in which the rd winner MUST be awarded 10 pts. BUT, there can be deductions from those 10 points, there are additional caveats governing a KD against the winning fighter, a foul deducted point etc in that same rd which he otherwise won, which would result in a 9-9 rd, even though, the system is a 10 point MUST system.

            The name might be slightly misleading for those to whom boxing is a pastime to those with little interest in, nor knowledge of the basic rules.
            yeah i get, mind you not as well as i thought i did. but i was just repeating what i heard from the HBO commentators as i remember it. what they had said was, even with a kd, if the fighter who was kd still wins the round it's a 10/10 round, as per what i recall them saying.

            I wasn't clear on it being able to be scored a 9-9 round if there is a point deduction, but hey you live and you learn. doesn't mean boxing is a pastime or i have little interest, just that i don't know all the rules for scoring.

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            • Boxingtech718v2
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              #26
              If he was almost close to stopping the opposition and then gets flash KD then probably 10-9. If he gets rocked something serious then probably 10-8.

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              • edgarg
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                #27
                Originally posted by D4thincarnation
                No if the fighter that get KD edges the round it is a 10-9 round to the fighter that scored the KD

                If the fighter that got KD was dominating the round before the KD and then goes on to dominate the round after the KD the judges may score it in favour of the fighter that got KD 10-9.
                No this cannot happen. No matter how dominating he is in the rd, if he was knocked down he MUST lose a point, therefore the most be can get in that rd is 9. His opponent, depending on how much he has been dominated, can be deducted 1,or2 pts. I have never seen a fighter dominated in a rd so much that he's lost 3 pts. I have rarely seen a 2 pt loss, because, although he was not KD, was beaten up so badly that a 2 pt deduction was warranted.

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                • BattlingNelson
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                  #28
                  Originally posted by edgarg
                  That's OK we understand. Judging from most of your other comments it was fairly obvious that there was a lot you didn't know.........but most of the posters on this site are in the same league. At least you are honest and open about yor comments.
                  !!!!!

                  I love you edgar!

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                  • D4thincarnation
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                    #29
                    Originally posted by edgarg
                    No this cannot happen. No matter how dominating he is in the rd, if he was knocked down he MUST lose a point, therefore the most be can get in that rd is 9. His opponent, depending on how much he has been dominated, can be deducted 1,or2 pts. I have never seen a fighter dominated in a rd so much that he's lost 3 pts. I have rarely seen a 2 pt loss, because, although he was not KD, was beaten up so badly that a 2 pt deduction was warranted.
                    It can happen and it did in Pacquiao vs Mosley.

                    Pacquiao dominating the round before and after the so called flash KD.

                    Before the KD Pacquiao was dominating, winning the round, 10-9, then the KD happened, so at that point the judges would have had it 10-9 Mosley, but then Pacquiao goes on to dominate the round still so it became a 10-9 for Pacquiao.

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                    • ajohnz
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                      #30
                      Originally posted by D4thincarnation
                      It can happen and it did in Pacquiao vs Mosley.

                      Pacquiao dominating the round before and after the so called flash KD.

                      Before the KD Pacquiao was dominating, winning the round, 10-9, then the KD happened, so at that point the judges would have had it 10-9 Mosley, but then Pacquiao goes on to dominate the round still so it became a 10-9 for Pacquiao.
                      i believe this is incorrect. i think the judges used their own discretion and knew it wasn't a knockdown so they ignored the refs call. if what i just said is false please provide me with a link.

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