may had that spot before he retired.
surely oscar was old and "past prime" when manny beat him. what about cotto and hatton? they weren't in their "primes," when manny beat them.
considering floyd beat oscar and hatton (who was prime at the time) years before manny got to them, and the reason manny got p4p #1 was b/c floyd retired, is it unreasonable to assume mayweather should be considered p4p #1 when he came back? it may be displeasing to pacquiao fans, but unreasonable?
i think not.
surely oscar was old and "past prime" when manny beat him. what about cotto and hatton? they weren't in their "primes," when manny beat them.
considering floyd beat oscar and hatton (who was prime at the time) years before manny got to them, and the reason manny got p4p #1 was b/c floyd retired, is it unreasonable to assume mayweather should be considered p4p #1 when he came back? it may be displeasing to pacquiao fans, but unreasonable?
i think not.
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