Originally posted by travestyny
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But in both cases there were underlying crimes.
Remember, this is the point you chose to challenge:
We dont convict people of obstruction of justice without an underlying crime.
And in this case there is no underlying crime.
You cited a legal argument it 'could be possible', and now you've cited two cases with convictions, but convictions where there were underlying crimes.
None of that refutes what I specifically stated.
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