Srs question, why did Manny Pacquiao turn down random blood testing back then?

[fernandtg]

He was probably juicing, duh. Why are you obsessed with that?

He just humiliated Broner without juicing, at 40 years old. Focus on the present, boy.

[Zaryu]

It's not a good look for him, that's for sure. But back then Pacquiao hadn't fully conceded to being a "b" side per se. At least not to the point where he would just accept Floyd's stipulations as absolutley necessary for the fight to happen.

[strykr619]

This is what autism looks like. Autistic fella thinks Floyda is first fighter to rehydrate with IV Saline...and whines about PEDs

Meanwhile while Manny was:

Afraid of needles

Giving blood weakens me

I need a cutoff date

And he said all of those excuses whole moving up in weight and stopping larger guys. Manny is the most likely PED user of the past 25 years..and it's not even close

You do understand until the late 90's it was CULTURALLY TABOO among Bisaya's to draw blood if not for medical treatment.

Oh wait so culture issues don't matter anymore, that is where his fear of needles had stemmed from. Since then he was forced to adapt.

Y'all people be screaming blacklivesmatter all the damn time but when it comes to other peoples culture you don't give 2 damn shiets about it....

[strykr619]

People are wondering why Floyd' IV dump is controversial? You do the exact same sheit for EPO blood doping pre and post event.

Floyd stans will harp on some other shiet real quick.

[New England]

there were a bunch of reasons.

i think he was probably on something when he was with alex ariza.

but even if he wasn't on drugs, why take a drug test because floyd mayweather asks you to? you're not getting extra money, it will hurt your career and make people su****ious if you look bad and lose. and if they fought in their primes manny would have looked bad and lost! styles make fights and floyd was never good for him!

both sides wanted to push off the fight with each other until they'd made their money. they used the prospect of a fight with each other to build their fights against no hopers.

[Dosumpthin]

Not ******* but you are a certified ***** lol! Let us talk a tiny bit about IV infusions related to dehydration. In a hospital setting, if a patient is proven to be significantly dehydrated. Normal Saline bolus is the very first treatment given to replace the fluids lost. When dehydration is severe, acute renal failure will occur due to significant fluid loss and kidney functions may drop sharply causing elevated serum BUN and Creatinine and low EGFR. If the dehydration is due to diarrhea, chances are the patient would likely present with very low serum potassium(hypokalemia) as well. Series of labwork will be done of course. (Diarrhea could also cause acid base imbalance btw aside from electrolyte imbalance). So after the saline bolus/es and after the kidney functions improve within acceptable range, the patient may continue to have a saline drip at a much slower rate with IV KCL added in the bag.

Multivitamins infusion on the other hand, just to give you an example, is usually given to patient who are deficient like those who are withdrawing from alcohol with Vit B1 100-200mg IV on top.

Good information. You seem knowledgeable in this area and I appreciate the well thought out response in this particular post.

I have engaged in numerous discussions on this board surrounding the legitimacy of Floyd's IV use and I hope you can shed some light on a particular subject.


But first - earlier you stated that you would "only give a patient saline via IV after accute renal failure." Although Im not a medical professional, this statement seems to me more opinion orientated than based on sound medical practices.

Again, I'm not a medical professional and I am giving you the benefit of doubt that you have 10 years experience. I just want to ensure we have an honest discussion without any exaggerated statements moving forward.



Just to be clear, I believe if a urine sample was taken before and after the IV - then the IV was not used to mask a banned substance ("before" sample). Simple.
It is also extremely unlikely the contents of the IV was for nefarious purposes ("after" sample) given the fact there was a "before" sample.


The main debate at this time is the legitimacy of the METHOD used and whether or not it adheres to USADA and WADA CODE.


We clear?

[Dosumpthin]

Yo u can’t even defend your answers you dummy, but i’m the troll lol!!!! Dumb dumb dumb

Im willing to discuss whatever and you don’t even have points to show

You're a fool. No thanks. Won't debate with an idiot.

But just keep making comments. I'll keep dropping random one or two liners for you though.


Here's one.

Manny declined 50/50 but accepted 40/60. The end.

[Dosumpthin]

yes, give and take!! floyd demanded something that he has never done before and asked for random blood test.

so manny demanded something that he has never done before and asked for a cut off.

if you asks me, that's a fair trade!!!

this is called negotiation. it's not called what floyd wants floyd gets.

You're so ****ing dumb.

How is random vs not random a fair trade.

Mannys team was specific not only with the cut off but the days

Once at the beginning of camp
Once 30 days out
Once after the fight.

That's not random idiot.

[IceTrayDaGang]

Floyd "zero cutoff and random"

Manny "1 month before fight only"

Floyd "Ok 2 weeks"

Manny "1 month before fight only"

Floyd "what about hatton?"

Manny "errrr. Forgot about that. 24 days only"



You call that negotiations?

so that means floyd was trying to move the goal post and was in no hurry to make the fight then. thanks for posting that up!

- floyd asked for random blood test
- pac agreed but asked for a cut off

that should have been it right there!! give and take!

[IceTrayDaGang]

You're so ****ing dumb.

How is random vs not random a fair trade.

Mannys team was specific not only with the cut off but the days

Once at the beginning of camp
Once 30 days out
Once after the fight.

That's not random idiot.

are you dumb?? pac asked for a cut off date. that means that before the cut off date, he will be tested randomly up until the suppose cut off date!!!

let me break it down and give you an example --

starting off today's date 1/22/19, if we BOTH agreed to be tested up until 2/22/19 which will be the cut off date. guess what? that means that we will still be tested randomly up until 2/22/19. do you get it now??????? so that means they can show up on 1/23, 1/28, 2/2, 2/11, up until 2/22!!! how is that not random?