About That IV Floyd Had...

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  • Robbie Barrett
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    #11
    Originally posted by _Maxi
    Pacquiao's contract:


    It didn't happen.
    But it did. Mayweather didn't have the TUE approved until until after the fight. It takes weeks to approve a TUE because a panel has decide to approve it or not.

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    • jaded
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      #12
      Originally posted by _Maxi
      Cuz his fighter is looking dirty in the other thread in which the matter has been discussed all day long today.
      I can't believe this is still trending...we've all known he was dirty for a year and a half now. Isn't that why he retired...to avoid all this?

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      • koolkc107
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        #13
        Originally posted by jaded
        It's almost 2017...why would you need to rehash this?
        Because I am hopelessly addicted to something called "common sense".

        I see thread after thread speculating on something that was a dead issue the day it surfaced. All you need do is apply logic.

        Suppose it wasn't an IV - if it was a crime committed like a murder- you'd be hard pressed to convict Floyd of anything since EVERYTHING he did was unpremeditated and in full view of corroborating witnesses. And the only forensics you have- the pre-IV urine tests, the post-IV urine tests, and the ABP- all exonerated him. The jury- USADA and WADA- exonerates him.

        Yet, you still have butthurt posters starting fantastical threads trying to explain away with mumbo jumbo what everyone saw- Manny got worked by Floyd, and badly.

        That's why.

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        • koolkc107
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          #14
          Originally posted by _Maxi
          1) IVs are commonly used to mask PEDs therefore are banned.
          2) The NSAC was informed of the IV 20 days later. Why?
          3) There are some red flags. Some of the Floyd's old tests show unusually low Testosterone/Epitestosterone ratio.
          The thing you can't get around, the thing you HAVE NO EXPLANATION FOR is how the pre-IV urine test came back clean if Floyd was indeed doping.

          The thing you can't get around, the thing you CAN'T THROW BULLCRAP SPECULATION AT is how, if he had odd T/E ratios, did his ABP NOT show any discrepancy. The USADA and WADA scientists have the data. Why are they not outing Floyd?

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          • _Maxi
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            #15
            Originally posted by koolkc107
            The thing you can't get around, the thing you HAVE NO EXPLANATION FOR is how the pre-IV urine test came back clean if Floyd was indeed doping.

            The thing you can't get around, the thing you CAN'T THROW BULLCRAP SPECULATION AT is how, if he had odd T/E ratios, did his ABP NOT show any discrepancy. The USADA and WADA scientists have the data. Why are they not outing Floyd?
            Floyd could take something in between his last urine sample and the fight.

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            • Robbie Barrett
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              #16
              Originally posted by _Maxi
              Floyd could take something in between his last urine sample and the fight.
              Which would show up in the after fight test.

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              • _Maxi
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                #17
                Originally posted by koolkc107
                The thing you can't get around, the thing you HAVE NO EXPLANATION FOR is how the pre-IV urine test came back clean if Floyd was indeed doping.

                The thing you can't get around, the thing you CAN'T THROW BULLCRAP SPECULATION AT is how, if he had odd T/E ratios, did his ABP NOT show any discrepancy. The USADA and WADA scientists have the data. Why are they not outing Floyd?
                Yeah and also Armstrong was never caught by USADA.


                About the Low Testosterone/Epitestosterone ratios:
                Avg white man 1.2 to 1 T/E.

                Avg. black man 1.3 to 1 T/E.

                WADA allows athletes to have T/E ratio as high as 4.0 to 1.

                Floyd's T/E in previous tests was 0.69 to 1 and 0.8 to 1.

                Low ratio of T/E is a red flag for PED use because it indicates "MASKING" to hide/lower high testosterone levels.

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                • _Maxi
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                  #18
                  Originally posted by Isaac Clarke
                  Which would show up in the after fight test.
                  No because the IV would mask it.

                  Victor Conte:
                  “I don’t get it,” Conte says. “There are strict criteria for the granting of a TUE. You don’t hand them out like Halloween candy. And this sort of IV use is clearly against the rules. Also, from a medical point of view, if they’re administering what they said they did, it doesn’t make sense to me. There are more effective ways to rehydrate. If you drank ice-cold Celtic seawater, you’d have far greater benefits. It’s very su****ious to me. I can tell you that IV drugs clear an athlete’s system more quickly than drugs that are administered by subcutaneous injection. So why did USADA make this decision? Why did they grant something that’s prohibited? In my view, that’s something federal law enforcement officials should be asking Travis Tygart.”

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                  • Robbie Barrett
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                    #19
                    Originally posted by _Maxi
                    No because the IV would mask it.
                    OMG you're ******ed. IV masks the drugs by diluting the samples taken. It wouldn't still be effective the day after. You absolute ******.

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                    • koolkc107
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                      #20
                      Originally posted by _Maxi
                      Yeah and also Armstrong was never caught by USADA.


                      About the Low Testosterone/Epitestosterone ratios:
                      Yeah, USADA never caught Lance...



                      And you can write Floyd's levels down all you like.

                      What YOU CANT DO IS EXPLAIN HOW THEY ARE INCONSISTENT WITH HIS ABP...because clearly they are not or WADA would have brought down the hammer a long time ago.

                      Again, get over your butthurt and face facts.

                      Dude is clean.

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