I was commenting in the context of the contracts having been signed. Not if they weren't.
He posted that Manny should take the test, fail it, and go on to beat Floyd.
Which doesn't make any sense.
Manny would have only taken the tests after the contract was signed, correct? Not before he signed, right?
He posted that Manny should take the test, fail it, and go on to beat Floyd.
Which doesn't make any sense.
Manny would have only taken the tests after the contract was signed, correct? Not before he signed, right?

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