Why aren't the bookies taking bets on the Klitschko-Gomez fight?

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  • werewolf
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    #11
    Originally posted by The_Visitation
    Could somebody explain to this ignorant Brit how the US system for betting odds works?

    What does,say,

    Pacquiao -260
    Hatton +220
    9.5 ov -150

    mean in terms of 1/2, 5/1, Evens, etc ?

    It's the bookies overly complex scam way of showing the odds in order to try to fool the suckers into thinking they are getting a fair shake.

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    • The_Visitation
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      #12
      Originally posted by mt102879
      - means you would have to bet 260 to win 100
      + means you would have to bet 100 to win 220
      Thanks. What about the 9.5 ov -150 bit?

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      • βetamax
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        #13
        Originally posted by The_Visitation
        Thanks. What about the 9.5 ov -150 bit?
        I believe it means that if you wanted to bet on the fight going over 9.5 rounds you would have to bet 150 to win 100.

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        • gopi11
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          #14
          Originally posted by The_Visitation
          Could somebody explain to this ignorant Brit how the US system for betting odds works?

          What does,say,

          Pacquiao -260
          Hatton +220
          9.5 ov -150

          mean in terms of 1/2, 5/1, Evens, etc ?

          Just change the "Odds" to decimal or fractional, instead of American. You bet 260 for Pacquiao to win 100, or bet a hundred for Ricky to win and you get 220 in return.

          The over/under odds is 9 1/2 rounds...

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          • werewolf
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            #15
            See, the bookies won't just, say, 2 to 1, then people would expect to either plunk down 1 to win 2, or with the other guy, plunk down 2 to win 1, but that wouldn't do. They need a big spread so they can rake in the sheckels, and if they just came up front and said, OK you get 2-1 if you bet on A, but if you bet on B you don't get 1-2, you only get 1-4, so that's why they devised this confusing system of indicating the odds.

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            • The_Visitation
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              #16
              Gotcha. Thanks, guys.

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              • gopi11
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                #17
                Originally posted by werewolf
                See, the bookies won't just, say, 2 to 1, then people would expect to either plunk down 1 to win 2, or with the other guy, plunk down 2 to win 1, but that wouldn't do. They need a big spread so they can rake in the sheckels, and if they just came up front and said, OK you get 2-1 if you bet on A, but if you bet on B you don't get 1-2, you only get 1-4, so that's why they devised this confusing system of indicating the odds.


                At least there's no juice! LMAO

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                • Hitman932
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                  #18
                  Originally posted by gopi11
                  At least there's no juice! LMAO
                  Technically speaking NO, but in reality there is.

                  Boxing lines to not balance out so there is naturally created "juice".

                  Say Vitali is -700 to win the fight, you don't get +700 on Gomez.

                  Instead Gomez will be +550 or thereabouts.

                  the difference between the -700 favorite and +550 underdog represents the "juice"

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