In the first fight against Wilder, he was listed as having 84” reach — a one-inch advantage over Wilder.
This time around, I’ve seen articles stating that he as at a reach disadvantage — listing his reach at 78”.
Does anyone know why this happened and why his reach has changed?
In the first fight against Wilder, he was listed as having 84” reach — a one-inch advantage over Wilder.
This time around, I’ve seen articles stating that he as at a reach disadvantage — listing his reach at 78”.
Does anyone know why this happened and why his reach has changed?
No, Ortiz's reach was corrected for Wilder/Ortiz 1.
In the first fight against Wilder, he was listed as having 84” reach — a one-inch advantage over Wilder.
This time around, I’ve seen articles stating that he as at a reach disadvantage — listing his reach at 78”.
Does anyone know why this happened and why his reach has changed?
... "listed" by who, exactly?...
... Boxrec and Wikipedia have/had him at 78”...