A question about law

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  • liliang
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    #1

    A question about law

    If a professinal boxer has intentional fouls and hurt his opponent
    ,would he be sued in the USA?Were there any cases in the histoty?
    Thanks
  • New England
    Strong champion.
    Franchise Champion - 20,000+ posts
    • Oct 2010
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    #2
    i'm not sure about the civil matters (if money was given to the damaged party)

    but i remember when richard grant got his toung chopped in half when he was sucker punched at the end of a fight on ESPN


    the guy who hit him had his license revoked
    and went to prison


    he later killed the brother of max kellerman with a hammer

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    • liliang
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      #3
      thank u very much

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      • Kagami Taiga
        Generation of Miracles
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        #4
        the Butler case is different because he hit grant without gloves on and not in the course of competition. But normally no, there can be no suits or charges levied for intentional fouls unless they are particularly outrageous and are not foreseeable results of participating in a boxing match.

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        • BattlingNelson
          Mod a Phukka
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          #5
          Luis Resto was prosecuted after his fight with Billy Collins jr. The incident is well documented; Resto was found guilty of assault.

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          • AllEyesOpen
            Speech Cobra
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            #6
            Originally posted by BattlingNelson
            Luis Resto was prosecuted after his fight with Billy Collins jr. The incident is well documented; Resto was found guilty of assault.
            That's not an intentional foul, Resto walked in the ring with tampered equipment, i think that's assult with a deadly weapon.

            As for the TS, If Golota didn't get sued, and those were some of the most flagrant fouls ever, then i doubt it.

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            • liliang
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              #7
              thank u,guys

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