Oscar was 34, had only one fight in the previous 2 1/2 years and was 9 years past his peak at #1 p4p. He knew he needed some advantages against Floyd to stand any kind of chance. So he got the ring, gloves etc that he wanted, because he was the draw and called the shots. The weight gave Floyd a chance to fight a shadow of his former self for a title in a 5th weight class, so it was good for both guys, but more of an advantage for Oscar in the ring.
My question is: Why does Floyd, who was #1 p4p last year, who claims to be the greatest boxer to ever lace up a pair of gloves (and has quite a few people believing it) need such a huge advantage in fighting a past it FW that will most certainly add to his resume? (no matter how many people call it a meaningless "tune up")
My question is: Why does Floyd, who was #1 p4p last year, who claims to be the greatest boxer to ever lace up a pair of gloves (and has quite a few people believing it) need such a huge advantage in fighting a past it FW that will most certainly add to his resume? (no matter how many people call it a meaningless "tune up")
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