After David Lemieux coming down with a severe case of Pacquiaortic inflammation in his shoulder, I went down memory lane back to May 2015.
This guy who asked this question of Bob Arum. Look at Freddie Roach when the question gets asked. I time stamped it to the point, just hit Play.
Almost as if to say, "yeah Bob, why did you allow the fight to go on? This should be good".
Suppose for a moment Manny's shoulder situation was legit and that he aggravated it IN the fight, as is the theory from Bernard Hopkins and others. Rotator cuff? Nuh uh. But he might have pulled something with all of those missed punches.
We know that Arum basically took almost all of his MayPac take.
We also know that conveniently, Koncz marked "no" on the form asking if Pacquiao was working with an injury. Why would he do that? Did Arum tell him to falsify the form, so that the fight wouldn't get pushed back?
We know that Manny was trying to get a Toradol shot before the fight - yet was denied because of that "no" selection, the last minute nature of it and the miscommunication between NSAC and USADA. Did Arum intercept the notification to USADA that would have cleared Manny's ability to get the shot, so that Floyd wouldn't find out and cancel the fight?
And before you start, I'm not defending Manny. He was stupid. I'm questioning how much Arum really knew about this injury leading up to the fight since he made out like a bandit off of Manny that night.
This guy who asked this question of Bob Arum. Look at Freddie Roach when the question gets asked. I time stamped it to the point, just hit Play.
Almost as if to say, "yeah Bob, why did you allow the fight to go on? This should be good".
Suppose for a moment Manny's shoulder situation was legit and that he aggravated it IN the fight, as is the theory from Bernard Hopkins and others. Rotator cuff? Nuh uh. But he might have pulled something with all of those missed punches.
We know that Arum basically took almost all of his MayPac take.
We also know that conveniently, Koncz marked "no" on the form asking if Pacquiao was working with an injury. Why would he do that? Did Arum tell him to falsify the form, so that the fight wouldn't get pushed back?
We know that Manny was trying to get a Toradol shot before the fight - yet was denied because of that "no" selection, the last minute nature of it and the miscommunication between NSAC and USADA. Did Arum intercept the notification to USADA that would have cleared Manny's ability to get the shot, so that Floyd wouldn't find out and cancel the fight?
And before you start, I'm not defending Manny. He was stupid. I'm questioning how much Arum really knew about this injury leading up to the fight since he made out like a bandit off of Manny that night.
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