WADA said that all tests before March 1st that detected less than 1 microgram is evidence that they took it before January 1st,. Povetkins results show he had 0.07 micrograms. Which means he took it months ago and it was in his system for the tests he passed. Not a great look for testing.
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How did Povetkin pass the first 3 VADA tests?
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Originally posted by RussTBE View PostBecuase he sneakily tried to take it after the ban.
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Originally posted by Isaac Clarke View PostEven if he took it after the ban, such low levels is evidence that he took it months ago (WADA said this). It means he had it in his system when he was tested by VADA the first 3 times and they failed to detect it.
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Because he was clean then. Clean as in beating the test. My guess is that he has taken microdoses of the ped. Phuck him. Ban him. Fine him.
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I think the most likely scenario was he was microdosing or he masked his usage in the 3 previous tests prior to the dirty one.
Some of the people more aggressively defending Povetkin have suggested they feel that the amount he popped for is so small it might not have even shown up on the 3 previous tests. Idk how true that could be since the go to for why Povetkin tested positive for this is cuz it can last for months & testing for 70x less then Povetkin did will get you dinged on the drug text, but I've seen no examples of it being a possibility yet so who knows for sure.
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All I know wilder is a coward, he will pull out of the fight, he aint on no G shit like salido who said he dont care what Vargas is on he still whoop em.
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Originally posted by RussTBE View PostHim and his team are shady mofos
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