Or does Pacquiao have the propaganda advantage because his fight comes after Floyd's?
Assuming both win in a fashion that could be rated 8 on a scale of 0 to 10, who gets the propaganda advantage between the two?
I'm asking this right now because I just read a poker book called Theory of Poker and the author says that the poker player who gets to act last has the edge over the one who acts first.
So who gets the edge propaganda-wise, assuming each has similar level performance in their respective fights?
p.s. I know Pac is not even fighting the propaganda and smearing and slander war, but the fact is, whether he likes it or not, he is, by default of the fact that Floyd has been trying to slander him.
Assuming both win in a fashion that could be rated 8 on a scale of 0 to 10, who gets the propaganda advantage between the two?
I'm asking this right now because I just read a poker book called Theory of Poker and the author says that the poker player who gets to act last has the edge over the one who acts first.
So who gets the edge propaganda-wise, assuming each has similar level performance in their respective fights?
p.s. I know Pac is not even fighting the propaganda and smearing and slander war, but the fact is, whether he likes it or not, he is, by default of the fact that Floyd has been trying to slander him.
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