Originally Posted by Big Dunn
AT a DUI stop, if you refuse a breathylyzer test its treated as a positive. If you go to court and refuse to take a drug test its treated as a positive. Why are you so confused as to how people could take manny's refusal to test and then trying to know the date of the test, as an indication he is using PED's?
while i agree that refusal to take the test doesn't look good for manny, there are other considerations to make
concessions ("ok, i'll take your test,") in boxing always work two ways. manny and floyd were essentially ready to fight and had agreed to terms before floyd brought up extra drug testing at the last minute. that's really not how things work in boxing, or in any negotiation. if something like that is brought up during negotiations early on you can come to a compromise that makes both parties happy. you dont concede anything without compensation. why would you subject your fighter to the drug tests when it's not required beyond the piss tests? if you dont need to give anything up, you dont.
"ok, we can take a drug test, but i want more money."
"ok, we can take a drug test, but i want a smaller ring."
etc. you lay out all of the terms of any early on. they didnt do that. i genuinely believe that the intention of the mayweather team was to stall for more money. they knew the fight would be huge, and that it would make their fights in the meantime bigger.
and more importantly, if manny loses (and let's face it, he'd lose to floyd mayweather,) the first time he takes a drug test people will assume that he was using drugs, even if he was always clean.